Here are my reflections regarding Scott Soames' talk on Friday. I havent gotten a clear handle on his argument yet, and dont even have his paper with me presently (actually I just found it and will quote it below) but I didnt want to delay posting any longer; lets get talking while this is still on our minds, right?
So, at one point in Dr. Soames' presentation he guides us through the dilemma of the following three inconsistent claims:
1) there are genuine instances of the contingent apriori.
2) Epistemic Necessity- if p is false at some epistemically possible world-state, then p isn't apriori. So if p is apriori, then p is true at every epistemically possible world-state.
3) it is never apriori inconsistent to suppose, of any metaphysically possible world-state, that it is instantiated. (presentation handout, page 3)
One of these three has to go; however, any two of them are consistent. It wasnt precisely clear to me during the talk why claim 3 was included at all. However, upon doing my phil-mind reading for this week it became quiet obvious that Soames was wanting to deny 2 (while holding 3) in order to defeat Chalmers' distinction between primary and secondary intensions. More below. I really dont feel confident talking about all of that right now though, and want to concentrate on Soames' pro-example for the contingent a priori (i.e- his support of 1) and why he uses it rather than the standard examples from Kripke and Putnam (e.g.- "water is H2O"). However, what I think I have found in my meager studies is that Soames uses his novel "actually" examples specifically because of Chalmers' critique of the Kripke/Putnam examples, so this will all eventually lead back to Chalmers'
The Conscious Mind chapter 2.
Soames' example of the contingent apriori:
"S iff actually S". This is apriori because, both a) it is derivable from "S iff S" and, b) "S iff S" is a priori. (Soames tends to say "knowable apriori" but given that apriori means "knowable without experience," saying "knowable" is redundant. I hate that there is no footnotes option for this word processor and beg your pardon for my parenthetical notation.) Lets grant that "S iff actually S" is apriori preliminarily and go on to evaluate Soames' argument for its contingency.
Now what is it about adding "actually" to one side of the necessary biconditional "S iff S" that renders a contingency? It is actually quiet basic:
Take S to be any contingent truth, say, that UB South campus is less than 20 miles from UB North campus. If we evaluate the proposition that "UB South campus is less 20 miles from UB North Campus if and only if UB South campus actually is less than 20 miles from UB North campus" at the actual world-state, we get a truth. However, if we evaluate this proposition at a possible world in which UB South campus is 60 miles from UB North campus, we get a falsity. For, at that possible-but-not-actualized world-state, the left side of the biconditional is false while the right side is true. Accordingly, we have a proposition that is true of some possible worlds but not true of all possible worlds. Therefore it is contingent.
Something about this seemed fishy to me from the start and still does. Maybe the following is what is bothering me, but I dont know...
What does it mean to evaluate a proposition at a possible world? Isn't this to wonder (for the sake of evaluation) what things would be like if the given possible world was actually the actual world? If so, then "S iff actually S" would be just as necessary as "S iff S", for in the counterfactual world considered above we would have a falsity on both sides of the biconditional. That is, it would be true that "South is less than 20 from North iff South is actually less than 20 from North" for both sides would be false if that world-state obtained, and we would agree that if North campus were moved 50 miles closer to South in the given counterfactual, then both sides would become true at once.
Under this alternative treatment of possible worlds, Soames' example for the contingent apriori fails (to be a legitimate example), but my alternative treatment seems dubious. Let me at least try to take a shot at defending it, however.
Lets try a reductio! Suppose Soames' approach to possible worlds is correct and we can evaluate propositions at possible worlds while continuing to index the actual world within them. For utility, we'll take Putnam's famous Twin Earth. I am on Twin Earth and say "This is water", pointing to a meandering stream. What I have said is false, because, given that water is essentially H2O and vice-versa, only H2O will count as water on any possible world. But what if I, having learned to properly distinguish XYZ and H2O, and having scouted all of Twin Earth, come to say "There is no water."? This seems true. What about if I then say "Actually, there is no water."? It seems fine to my intuitions (as long as we are doing speculative metaphysics), that this latter proposition would be true. "Actually", here is embedded to Twin-Earth, which is taken to be actual. But, because we've adopted Soames' approach and indexed 'actual' to our world, this proposition would be false.
Its getting late and this blog is getting long, so let me leave this line for now (maybe I can tidy it up after my fellow-posters examine it) and say one more thing about Soames' contingent apriori. This time I will question the aprioricity of the example.
Remember that Soames has argued in favor of giving up the second horn of the triad dilemma above, which he calls Epistemic Necessity. What he argues is that certain propositions are false when evaluated at certain epistemically possible world-states, despite being apriori. However, he wishes to hold onto the view that (3) it is never apriori inconsistent to suppose, of any metaphysically possible world-state, that it is instantiated. But if it is metaphysically possible (and I think it qualifies for this label as much as any proposed world-state), that, to use his example, Saul does not philosophize, then we cannot know apriori that Saul philosophizes. Moreover (and this is the point), we cannot know apriori that Saul actually philosophizes. This is just following lemma 3, which Soames accepts. Therefore, we are not permitted to index 'actual' from "saul philosophizes iff actually saul philosophizes" back to the possible world in which Saul does philosophize (to the world we take to be actual, the one in which I am typing right now). What I mean (I really am trying to be clear!) is that it is not apriori that the possible world in which Saul Kripke philosophizes is the actual world, and therefore if we follow Soames' approach to possible worlds (which we must do in order to get the contingent portion of his proposed contingent apriori) then we no longer have something which is apriori.
If what I have said holds, then the correct way to conceive of conceiving of possible worlds is to stipulate them as being actual; all indexing of 'actual', taken as an introductory adverbial clause and in the philosophical sense, must index to the possible world being stipulated.
I guess I wont get to the further implications (and the relevance to Chalmers' two-dimensionalism) in this post.
Please respond. I thank you all very much for your time; I thank Wes and Adam for encouraging me to join this blog.